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I understand this. By the way, is this not a variation of Lichello's AIM method?

Looking at the example in the spreadsheet, how does this work when faced with large lump sum, or moving from, say, a 401K that was in an underperforming asset? Thoughts?

Also, thinking of AIM, why do you choose not to redeem? What is the thinking?

Thanks as always

posted about 1 year ago by Ronald from South Carolina

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